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4392 Previous Year Questions • 2016–2026 • Prelims, Mains, Essay, Optionals
Topic:[Prelims] Indian Polity and Governance-Constitution, Political System, Panchayati Raj, Public Policy, Rights Issues, etc.180 PYQs
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Year
Prelims - Paper 1 (GS)
20 shown2026•Prelims•Paper 1 (GS)•Q.55
Consider the following statements with reference to the Constitution of India:
1
There is no Article in the Constitution of India that specifies that the Constitution of India will be officially called the 'Constitution of India'.
2
There is no Article in the Constitution of India that specifies that the Indian Independence Act, 1947 and the Government of India Act, 1935 stand repealed.
3
There is no Article in the Constitution of India that mentions 26th January, 1950 as the date of the commencement of the Constitution of India.
Indian Polity and Governance
2026•Prelims•Paper 1 (GS)•Q.57
Consider the following statements about the provisions pertaining to the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes in India:
1
Provisions regarding the administration of the Tribal Areas in the States of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram are given in the Fifth Schedule of the Constitution of India.
2
Some tribes of India are entitled to exemption from paying Income Tax on certain incomes.
3
The Constitution of India provides for reservation of seats in Panchayats for women belonging to the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes.
Indian Polity and Governance
2026•Prelims•Paper 1 (GS)•Q.62
Which of the following statements about a Zero First Information Report (Zero FIR) under the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS), 2023 is/are correct?
1
A Zero FIR can be lodged at a police station, even though the place of commission of a cognizable/non-cognizable offence is outside the territorial jurisdiction of that police station.
2
The Officer-in-Charge of the police station where a Zero FIR has been lodged may, with the permission of the competent authority, initiate a preliminary enquiry.
3
Under Zero FIR, it is obligatory for the informant to furnish information electronically.
Polity
2026•Prelims•Paper 1 (GS)•Q.63
With reference to the organisations under the Government of India, consider the following details:
1
Central Economic Intelligence Bureau (CEIB) - Function: To coordinate between various law enforcement agencies - Controlling Union Ministry: Ministry of Home Affairs
2
Serious Fraud Investigation Office (SFIO) - Function: To investigate complex corporate frauds - Controlling Union Ministry: Ministry of Finance
3
Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI) - Function: To preserve values in public life and ensure the health of the national economy - Controlling Union Ministry: Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pension
In how many of the above rows are the given details correctly matched?
Polity
2025•Prelims•Paper 1 (GS)•Q.51
With reference to the Indian polity, consider the following statements :
I. An Ordinance can amend any Central Act.
II. An Ordinance can abridge a Fundamental Right.
III. An Ordinance can come into effect from a back date.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Polity
2025•Prelims•Paper 1 (GS)•Q.53
With reference to India, consider the following :
I. The Inter-State Council
II. The National Security Council
III. Zonal Councils
How many of the above were established as per the provisions of the Constitution of India?
Polity
2025•Prelims•Paper 1 (GS)•Q.54
Consider the following statements :
I. The Constitution of India explicitly mentions that in certain spheres the Governor of a State acts in his/her own discretion.
II. The President of India can, of his/her own, reserve a bill passed by a State Legislature for his/her consideration without it being forwarded by the Governor of the State concerned.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Polity
2025•Prelims•Paper 1 (GS)•Q.55
Consider the following pairs :
Provision in the Constitution of India: Stated under
I. Separation of Judiciary from the Executive in the public services of the State: The Directive Principles of the State Policy
II. Valuing and preserving of the rich heritage of our composite culture: The Fundamental Duties
III. Prohibition of employment of children below the age of 14 years in factories: The Fundamental Rights
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
Polity
2025•Prelims•Paper 1 (GS)•Q.56
Consider the following statements :
With reference to the Constitution of India, if an area in a State is declared as Scheduled Area under the Fifth Schedule
I. the State Government loses its executive power in such areas and a local body assumes total administration
II. the Union Government can take over the total administration of such areas under certain circumstances on the recommendations of the Governor
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Polity
2025•Prelims•Paper 1 (GS)•Q.57
With reference to India, consider the following pairs :
Organization: Union Ministry
I. The National Automotive Board: Ministry of Commerce and Industry
II. The Coir Board: Ministry of Heavy Industries
III. The National Centre for Trade Information: Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
Polity
2025•Prelims•Paper 1 (GS)•Q.58
Consider the following subjects under the Constitution of India :
I. List I-Union List, in the Seventh Schedule
II. Extent of the executive power of a State
III. Conditions of the Governor's office
For a constitutional amendment with respect to which of the above, ratification by the Legislatures of not less than one-half of the States is required before presenting the bill to the President of India for assent?
Polity
2025•Prelims•Paper 1 (GS)•Q.59
With reference to the Indian polity, consider the following statements :
I. The Governor of a State is not answerable to any court for the exercise and performance of the powers and duties of his/her office.
II. No criminal proceedings shall be instituted or continued against the Governor during his/her term of office.
III. Members of a State Legislature are not liable to any proceedings in any court in respect of anything said within the House.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Polity
2025•Prelims•Paper 1 (GS)•Q.86
Consider the following statements with regard to pardoning power of the President of India :
I. The exercise of this power by the President can be subjected to limited judicial review.
II. The President can exercise this power without the advice of the Central Government.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Indian Polity
2025•Prelims•Paper 1 (GS)•Q.87
Consider the following statements :
I. On the dissolution of the House of the People, the Speaker shall not vacate his/her office until immediately before the first meeting of the House of the People after the dissolution.
II. According to the provisions of the Constitution of India, a Member of the House of the People on being elected as Speaker shall resign from his/her political party immediately.
III. The Speaker of the House of the People may be removed from his/her office by a resolution of the House of the People passed by a majority of all the then Members of the House, provided that no resolution shall be moved unless at least fourteen days' notice has been given of the intention to move the resolution.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Indian Polity
2025•Prelims•Paper 1 (GS)•Q.88
Consider the following statements :
I. If any question arises as to whether a Member of the House of the People has become subject to disqualification under the 10th Schedule, the President's decision in accordance with the opinion of the Council of Union Ministers shall be final.
II. There is no mention of the word 'political party' in the Constitution of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Indian Polity
2025•Prelims•Paper 1 (GS)•Q.89
Consider the following statements :
Statement I
In India, State Governments have no power for making rules for grant of concessions in respect of extraction of minor minerals even though such minerals are located in their territories.
Statement II
In India, the Central Government has the power to notify minor minerals under the relevant law.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Indian Polity
2025•Prelims•Paper 1 (GS)•Q.91
Consider the following statements :
I. Panchayats at the intermediate level exist in all States.
II. To be eligible to be a Member of a Panchayat at the intermediate level, a person should attain the age of thirty years.
III. The Chief Minister of a State constitutes a commission to review the financial position of Panchayats at the intermediate levels and to make recommendations regarding the distribution of net proceeds of taxes and duties, leviable by the State, between the State and Panchayats at the intermediate level.
Which of the statements given above are not correct?
Polity
2025•Prelims•Paper 1 (GS)•Q.98
Consider the following statements about Lokpal :
I. The power of Lokpal applies to public servants of India, but not to the Indian public servants posted outside India.
II. The Chairperson or a Member shall not be a Member of the Parliament or a Member of the Legislature of any State or Union Territory, and only the Chief Justice of India, whether incumbent or retired, has to be its Chairperson.
III. The Chairperson or a Member shall not be a person of less than forty-five years of age on the date of assuming office as the Chairperson or Member, as the case may be.
IV. Lokpal cannot inquire into the allegations of corruption against a sitting Prime Minister of India.
Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?
Indian Polity and Governance
2024•Prelims•Paper 1 (GS)•Q.61
Who was the Provisional President of the Constituent Assembly before Dr. Rajendra Prasad took over?
Polity
2024•Prelims•Paper 1 (GS)•Q.62
With reference to the Government of India Act, 1935, consider the following statements:
1
It provided for the establishment of an All India Federation based on the union of the British Indian Provinces and Princely States.
2
Defence and Foreign Affairs were kept under the control of the federal legislature.
Polity