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4392 Previous Year Questions • 2016–2026 • Prelims, Mains, Essay, Optionals
All Exams
Year
Prelims - Paper 1 (GS)
20 shown2025•Prelims•Paper 1 (GS)•Q.45
Consider the following substances :
I. Ethanol
II. Nitroglycerine
III. Urea
Coal gasification technology can be used in the production of how many of them?
General Science
2025•Prelims•Paper 1 (GS)•Q.46
What is the common characteristic of the chemical substances generally known as CL-20, HMX and LLM-105, which are sometimes talked about in media?
General Science
2025•Prelims•Paper 1 (GS)•Q.47
Consider the following statements :
I. It is expected that Majorana 1 chip will enable quantum computing.
II. Majorana 1 chip has been introduced by Amazon Web Services (AWS).
III. Deep learning is a subset of machine learning.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
General Science
2025•Prelims•Paper 1 (GS)•Q.48
With reference to monoclonal antibodies, often mentioned in news, consider the following statements :
I. They are man-made proteins.
II. They stimulate immunological function due to their ability to bind to specific antigens.
III. They are used in treating viral infections like that of Nipah virus.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
General Science
2025•Prelims•Paper 1 (GS)•Q.49
Consider the following statements :
I. No virus can survive in ocean waters.
II. No virus can infect bacteria.
III. No virus can change the cellular transcriptional activity in host cells.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
General Science
2025•Prelims•Paper 1 (GS)•Q.50
Consider the following statements :
Statement I
Activated carbon is a good and an attractive tool to remove pollutants from effluent streams and to remediate contaminants from various industries.
Statement II
Activated carbon exhibits a large surface area and a strong potential for adsorbing heavy metals.
Statement III
Activated carbon can be easily synthesized from environmental wastes with high carbon content.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Environmental Ecology
2025•Prelims•Paper 1 (GS)•Q.51
With reference to the Indian polity, consider the following statements :
I. An Ordinance can amend any Central Act.
II. An Ordinance can abridge a Fundamental Right.
III. An Ordinance can come into effect from a back date.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Polity
2025•Prelims•Paper 1 (GS)•Q.52
Consider the following pairs :
State: Description
I. Arunachal Pradesh: The capital is named after a fort, and the State has two National Parks
II. Nagaland: The State came into existence on the basis of a Constitutional Amendment Act
III. Tripura: Initially a Part 'C' State, it became a centrally administered territory with the reorganization of States in 1956 and later attained the status of a full-fledged State
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
Geography
2025•Prelims•Paper 1 (GS)•Q.53
With reference to India, consider the following :
I. The Inter-State Council
II. The National Security Council
III. Zonal Councils
How many of the above were established as per the provisions of the Constitution of India?
Polity
2025•Prelims•Paper 1 (GS)•Q.54
Consider the following statements :
I. The Constitution of India explicitly mentions that in certain spheres the Governor of a State acts in his/her own discretion.
II. The President of India can, of his/her own, reserve a bill passed by a State Legislature for his/her consideration without it being forwarded by the Governor of the State concerned.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Polity
2025•Prelims•Paper 1 (GS)•Q.55
Consider the following pairs :
Provision in the Constitution of India: Stated under
I. Separation of Judiciary from the Executive in the public services of the State: The Directive Principles of the State Policy
II. Valuing and preserving of the rich heritage of our composite culture: The Fundamental Duties
III. Prohibition of employment of children below the age of 14 years in factories: The Fundamental Rights
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
Polity
2025•Prelims•Paper 1 (GS)•Q.56
Consider the following statements :
With reference to the Constitution of India, if an area in a State is declared as Scheduled Area under the Fifth Schedule
I. the State Government loses its executive power in such areas and a local body assumes total administration
II. the Union Government can take over the total administration of such areas under certain circumstances on the recommendations of the Governor
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Polity
2025•Prelims•Paper 1 (GS)•Q.57
With reference to India, consider the following pairs :
Organization: Union Ministry
I. The National Automotive Board: Ministry of Commerce and Industry
II. The Coir Board: Ministry of Heavy Industries
III. The National Centre for Trade Information: Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
Polity
2025•Prelims•Paper 1 (GS)•Q.58
Consider the following subjects under the Constitution of India :
I. List I-Union List, in the Seventh Schedule
II. Extent of the executive power of a State
III. Conditions of the Governor's office
For a constitutional amendment with respect to which of the above, ratification by the Legislatures of not less than one-half of the States is required before presenting the bill to the President of India for assent?
Polity
2025•Prelims•Paper 1 (GS)•Q.59
With reference to the Indian polity, consider the following statements :
I. The Governor of a State is not answerable to any court for the exercise and performance of the powers and duties of his/her office.
II. No criminal proceedings shall be instituted or continued against the Governor during his/her term of office.
III. Members of a State Legislature are not liable to any proceedings in any court in respect of anything said within the House.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Polity
2025•Prelims•Paper 1 (GS)•Q.60
Consider the following activities :
I. Production of crude oil
II. Refining, storage and distribution of petroleum
III. Marketing and sale of petroleum products
IV. Production of natural gas
How many of the above activities are regulated by the Petroleum and Natural Gas Regulatory Board in our country?
GS-III
2025•Prelims•Paper 1 (GS)•Q.61
Suppose the revenue expenditure is ₹80,000 crores and the revenue receipts of the Government are ₹60,000 crores. The Government budget also shows borrowings of ₹10,000 crores and interest payments of ₹6,000 crores.
Which of the following statements are correct?
I. Revenue deficit is ₹20,000 crores.
II. Fiscal deficit is ₹10,000 crores.
III. Primary deficit is ₹4,000 crores.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
GS-III
2025•Prelims•Paper 1 (GS)•Q.62
India is one of the founding members of the International North-South Transport Corridor (INSTC), a multimodal transportation corridor, which will connect
GS-II
2025•Prelims•Paper 1 (GS)•Q.63
Consider the following statements :
Statement I
Of the two major ethanol producers in the world, i.e., Brazil and the United States of America, the former produces more ethanol than the latter.
Statement II
Unlike in the United States of America where corn is the principal feedstock for ethanol production, sugarcane is the principal feedstock for ethanol production in Brazil.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
GS-III
2025•Prelims•Paper 1 (GS)•Q.64
The World Bank warned that India could become one of the first places where wet-bulb temperatures routinely exceed 35 °C.
Which of the following statements best reflect(s) the implication of the above-said report?
I. Peninsular India will most likely suffer from flooding, tropical cyclones and droughts.
II. The survival of animals including humans will be affected as shedding of their body heat through perspiration becomes difficult.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
GS-III